Rape in Islamic Law: Difference between revisions

Rape in Islamic Law (view source)

Revision as of 04:13, 28 December 2020

349 bytes added , 28 December 2020

no edit summary

[checked revision]

IbnPinker

Editors, recentchangescleanup, Reviewers

6,632

edits

@@ Line 197: / Line 197: @@
 ==Modern revisionary perspectives and criticisms thereof==
-===Construing violations of the spoils-distribution system as rape===
+===Violations of the spoils-distribution system as rape===
 ====Quote from al-Shafi'i====
@@ Line 221: / Line 221: @@
 As with the quotes taken from Imam Shafi'i and Imam Malik, this is almost certainly refers to a violation of the system for distributing war spoils. Dharar's intercourse with the captive was ilegal and merited stoning not because he failed to get the consent of the girl he raped, but because he had intercourse with the girl without that girl having been allotted to him at the behest of the caliph (Umar in this case), who has the responsibility of distributing spoils. Consent was not a factor here.
-===Claims that Men had to Marry their Slaves Before Intercourse was Permitted===
+===Freedom and marriage as a universal requirement===
-Sometimes it is claimed using verses 4:23-24 (quoted above) that men could not have sex with their female slaves unless they first married them. If true, a man would still have to free his slave in order to marry her, but if she knows that she will remain a slave if she declines, it is hardly a free choice.
+Verses 4:23-24 ({{Quran-range|4|23|24}}) are sometimes presented as evidence for the idea that a man must first manumit and marry a slave in order to have sex with her. The verse lists the types of women a Muslim man is permitted to marry, one given option being his slave women, of whom he may free and marry. While 4:23-24 do not mention slaves outside of a marital context, several other verses (e.g. {{Quran-range|23|1|6}} and {{Quran-range|70|29|30}}) make clear reference to sexual activity with slaves with whom the owner is not married by explicitly distinguishing between his sexual access to his wives and his sexual access to his slaves. The further example of Muhammad's companions raping captives from Banu al-Mustaliq prior to ransoming them (a scenario which effectively necessitates their non-marriage) confirms this idea.<ref>{{Bukhari|5|59|459}}, {{Muslim|8|3371}},{{Muwatta|29||95}}, {{Abudawud||2167}}, and {{Bukhari|3|34|432}}</ref>
-In any case, the claim is false. Verses 23:1-6 and 70:29-30 (quoted above) unambiguously distinguish slaves from wives, and make clear that sexual relations are permitted with both. Verses 4:23-24 merely permit men to marry their slaves, but do not say that marriage is a necessary condition for intercourse with them. The hadith evidence quoted above also shows that captives were sometimes raped before being ransomed.
+In addition, there is the universally attested legal category of the ''Umm Walad'' (literally "mother of child") that is used by Islamic jurists to refer to those slaves who have given birth to one of their master's children. An ''Umm Walad'' is legally distinct from a free mother ''because'' she is still a slave. Indeed, the concept of ''Umm Walad'' is apparently attested even in the prophet's time according to a hadith in Sahih Muslim - further clarifying the matter is the fact that in this very hadith, Muhammad approves of the companion's sexual relations with his unmarried slave girl.
-It is well established that a slave who is impregnated by her master to whom she is not married becomes an Umm Walad and remains a slave during his lifetime unless he frees her.
-In the following hadith, Muhammad has no objections to a man who has intercourse with his slave-girl to whom he is not married:
 {{Quote|{{Muslim|8|3377}}| Abu Sa'id al-Khudri (Allah be pleased with him) reported that mention was made of 'azl in the presence of Allah's Apostle (ﷺ) whereupon he said:
 Why do you practise it? They said: There is a man whose wife has to suckle the child, and if that person has a sexual intercourse with her (she may conceive) which he does not like, '''and there is another person who has a slave-girl and he has a sexual intercourse with her, but he does not like her to have conception so that she may not become Umm Walad''', whereupon he (the Holy Prophet) said: There is no harm if you do not do that, for that (the birth of the child) is something pre- ordained. Ibn 'Aun said: I made a mention of this hadith to Hasan, and he said: By Allah, (it seems) as if there is upbraiding in it (for 'azl).}}
-===Claims about verse 24:33===
+===Encouragement to chastity as a prohibition on rape===
-Muslims apologists frequently quote the following when confronted with the passages provided in this article and others like it:
-{{Quote|1={{Quran|24|33}}|2=Let those who find not the wherewithal for marriage keep themselves chaste, until Allah gives them means out of His grace. And if any of your slaves ask for a deed in writing (to enable them to earn their freedom for a certain sum), give them such a deed if ye know any good in them: yea, give them something yourselves out of the means which Allah has given to you. But force not your maids to prostitution when they desire chastity, in order that ye may make a gain in the goods of this life. But if anyone compels them, yet, after such compulsion, is Allah, Oft-Forgiving, Most Merciful (to them),}}
+Verse 24:33 ({{Quran|24|33}}), which instructs unmarried men to keep chaste and instructs slaveowners to "force not [their] maids to prostitution", is sometimes presented as evidence for the idea that sexual activity is only permitted in a marital context and that slaveowners may not compel their slave girls to sexual activity of any sort.
-The first part of the verse is telling unmarried people to keep themselves chaste. Now, the important thing to remember is that the Islamic definition of ''chaste'' is different than the commonly agreed upon definitions of the word. According to {{Quran|23|6}}, {{Quran|33|50}}, {{Quran|33|52}}, and {{Quran|70|30}} a Muslim man is considered "chaste" so long as he only has sex with his wives (of whom he may have up to four) and his right-hand possessions (female captives/slaves). An unmarried Muslim man who has sex with his slave girl is still considered to be "chaste" by Islamic standards.<ref>[{{Reference archive|1=http://www.islamqa.com/en/ref/10382|2=2012-01-17}} <!-- BACKUP LINK: http://web.archive.org/web/20051125031608/63.175.194.25/index.php?ln=eng&QR=10382 -->Ruling on having intercourse with a slave woman when one has a wife] - Islam Q&A, Fatwa No. 10382, November  24, 2005</ref>
+{{Quote|1={{Quran|24|33}}|2='''Let those who find not the wherewithal for marriage keep themselves chaste''', until Allah gives them means out of His grace. And if any of your slaves ask for a deed in writing (to enable them to earn their freedom for a certain sum), give them such a deed if ye know any good in them: yea, give them something yourselves out of the means which Allah has given to you. But '''force not your maids to prostitution when they desire chastity''', in order that ye may make a gain in the goods of this life. But if anyone compels them, yet, after such compulsion, is Allah, Oft-Forgiving, Most Merciful (to them),}}
-The second sentence speaks about slaves who ask for a way to pay for their freedom (like indentured servants) as long as the master knows of "any good in them". It would be interesting to discover how female slaves could earn any money at all if kidnapped from their families and forced into slavery while not having money-making skills. And if a female slave was to earn her freedom, where then could she go if her family had been massacred? How could she support herself and keep herself safe? Practicalities aside, this verse only tells Muslims to let their slaves purchase their freedom (with the requirement of "if ye know any good in them").
+Chastity is instructed throughout the Qur'an and is repeatedly defined as the habit of one who "guards their private parts" from all except "their wives [of whom they may have [[Polygamy|up to four]]] and what their right hand possesses [i.e. female slaves, of whom they may have an unlimited number]" (e.g. {{Quran|23|6}}, {{Quran|33|50}}, {{Quran|33|52}}, and {{Quran|70|30}}). It is clear that, in the view of the Qur'an's author, an unmarried male may be considered chaste even if he engages in sexual activity with a technically unlimited number of women, so long as they are his slaves.
-The third sentence is what pertains to the Muslim claim that rape of slaves is forbidden. However, the word used is not simply sexual intercourse but is more specifically "prostitution" or "whoredom". Prostitution is not simply about sex, but sex for a price. This is why it is often referred to as one of the oldest professions. What this verse speaks of is a master forcing his maid to be a prostitute thereby making money by allowing other men to have sex with her. This verse says nothing about a master forcing himself upon his slave-girl who is considered "halal" for him according to [[Islamic law]]. The fourth sentence says that if a girl is indeed forced into prostitution, then Allah will forgive her for committing [[zina]]. What this verse does not say is what the punishment should be for a man who forces his maid into prostitution. All it says is that he should not do it, and it certainly does not say that a Muslim man cannot force himself on his own slave-girl.
+The portion of the verse which instructs slaveowners to "force not [their] maids to prostitution" has traditionally been understood in its simplest sense, which prohibits slaveowners from playing the role of a pimp and trafficking their slave women - such a business built on illegal intercourse is of course prohibited and, understood this way, the verse says nothing of novel import. Another accepted sense of this verse is that if a female slave desires her (or, say, her child's) freedom, her master ought to give her some legal means by which to pursue it, the alternative being her feeling compelled to prostitute herself to earn the funds necessary to purchase that freedom (traditional tafsirs also mention the also undesirable possibility of a master forcing a slave to prostitution as a condition for her freedom). Since such a temptation on the part of the slave girl is all the more plausible given the likelihood that she was captured in a war or raid where her people were both slaughtered and enslaved (leaving her with no means), and so the verse concludes by saying that if a slave girl is driven to such behavior, then Allah will be forgiving. And in the simpler sense, if her master forces her to prostitution, then Allah will forgive her for what was not in her control.<ref>See [https://tafsir.app/qurtubi/24/33 Tafsir Qurtubi 24:33] in particular; see also [https://tafsir.app/tabari/24/33 Tafsir al-Tabari 24:33], [https://tafsir.app/ibn-katheer/24/33 Tafsir Ibn Kathir 24:33], and [https://tafsir.app/24/33 Tafsirs 24:33] in general</ref>
 {{Core Women}}