Allah, the Best Deceiver (Qur'an 3:54): Difference between revisions

→‎Jamal Badawi: I wonder why you is being used here to refer to Dr. Badawi. We aren't questioning Dr Badawi here. If we are listing critique of Islam here the text shouldn't be like a debate.
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(→‎Deceptive Translators: It is not necessary that all translators not using the word "deceptive". It really could be they thought of it as planner as it was referred to Allah.)
(→‎Jamal Badawi: I wonder why you is being used here to refer to Dr. Badawi. We aren't questioning Dr Badawi here. If we are listing critique of Islam here the text shouldn't be like a debate.)
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It is therefore in error for Dr. Badawi to submit this verse as evidence that words have different meanings when referring to Allah, because it is clearly talking about physical creation and not the meanings of words as they should be defined when Allah uses them to describe himself.
It is therefore in error for Dr. Badawi to submit this verse as evidence that words have different meanings when referring to Allah, because it is clearly talking about physical creation and not the meanings of words as they should be defined when Allah uses them to describe himself.


Even though we see that Dr. Badawi has no legitimate basis for his claim, we shall humor him in order to ask some questions:
Even though we see that Dr. Badawi has no legitimate basis for his claim, his claim can be proved wrong based on the following reasons:


1. How many words have different meanings when referring to Allah? We've already seen that you've taken a word with a negative meaning and turned it into a positive, claiming 'reverence'. Does this mean that all negatively slanted words that Allah uses about himself must be turned into a positive, even if that means completely redefining the word in question? Isn't this a case of ''Special pleading''? <ref name="special">[http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Special_pleading Special pleading (logical fallacy)] - Wikipedia</ref>
1. How many words have different meanings when referring to Allah? We've already seen that Dr. Bardawi has taken a word with a negative meaning and turned it into a positive, claiming 'reverence'. Does this mean that all negatively slanted words that Allah uses about himself must be turned into a positive, even if that means completely redefining the word in question? Isn't this a case of ''Special pleading''? <ref name="special">[http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Special_pleading Special pleading (logical fallacy)] - Wikipedia</ref>


2. Who decides what words have a different meaning when referring to Allah? Scholars like you? Don't you think this is just a way to hide and excuse the negative attributes of Allah by way of misdirecting those who are not as knowledgeable about Islam, the Qur'an and the Arabic language?
2. Who decides what words have a different meaning when referring to Allah? This might be just a way to hide and excuse the negative attributes of Allah by way of misdirecting those who are not as knowledgeable about Islam, the Qur'an and the Arabic language?


3. The Qur'an tells us: {{Quote|{{Quran|16|103}}| And certainly We know that they say: Only a mortal teaches him. The tongue of him whom they reproach is barbarous, '''and this is clear Arabic tongue.''' }}
3. The Qur'an tells us: {{Quote|{{Quran|16|103}}| And certainly We know that they say: Only a mortal teaches him. The tongue of him whom they reproach is barbarous, '''and this is clear Arabic tongue.''' }}
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Since the Qur'an says it is in clear Arabic, then this implies that the meaning of its words are as we understand them, and should not be applied in a different way to Allah. If ''makir'' has a different meaning when Allah uses it to refer to himself, then Qur'an 16:103 is obviously wrong. Is the Qur'an wrong here?
Since the Qur'an says it is in clear Arabic, then this implies that the meaning of its words are as we understand them, and should not be applied in a different way to Allah. If ''makir'' has a different meaning when Allah uses it to refer to himself, then Qur'an 16:103 is obviously wrong. Is the Qur'an wrong here?


4. You have claimed that makir has a different meaning when referring to Allah - that the common Arabic meaning is not correct. However the Qur'an states: {{Quote|{{Quran|3|7}}| He it is Who has revealed the Book to you; some of its verses are decisive, they are the basis of the Book, and others are allegorical; then as for those in whose hearts there is perversity they follow the part of it which is allegorical, seeking to mislead and seeking to give it (their own) interpretation. but none knows its interpretation except Allah, and those who are firmly rooted in knowledge say: We believe in it, it is all from our Lord; and none do mind except those having understanding. }}
4. Dr. Bardawi claimed that makir has a different meaning when referring to Allah - that the common Arabic meaning is not correct. However the Qur'an states: {{Quote|{{Quran|3|7}}| He it is Who has revealed the Book to you; some of its verses are decisive, they are the basis of the Book, and others are allegorical; then as for those in whose hearts there is perversity they follow the part of it which is allegorical, seeking to mislead and seeking to give it (their own) interpretation. but none knows its interpretation except Allah, and those who are firmly rooted in knowledge say: We believe in it, it is all from our Lord; and none do mind except those having understanding. }}


The Qur'an says that some people seek to mislead by giving their own interpretation to portions. Are you doing this? If the "true" [when referring to Allah] meaning is unknown to most, what evidence do we have that you are being truthful in this matter?
The Qur'an says that some people seek to mislead by giving their own interpretation to portions. It might be that Dr. Bardawi is doing the same. If the "true" [when referring to Allah] meaning is unknown to most, we do not have evidence that Dr. Bardawi is being truthful.


===Islam Q&A===
===Islam Q&A===
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