Child Marriage in the Qur'an: Difference between revisions

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Given that sexual activity among teenagers is common among many cultures, including Western ones, this appears to be the most reasonable interpretation. }}
Given that sexual activity among teenagers is common among many cultures, including Western ones, this appears to be the most reasonable interpretation. }}


Given the evidence from the Islamic texts themselves, this interpretation is not the 'most reasonable' as asserted. We have ample [[Aisha Age of Consummation|evidence]] that  Muhammad (who is considered the [[Uswa Hasana|uswa hasana]] - perfect example) married and had sex with a pre-pubescent Aisha, we have evidence that [[Muhammad's Companions and Pedophilia|Muhammad's companions also did it]] and that [[Contemporary Pedophilic Islamic Marriages|Muslims to this very day]] are marrying pre-pubescent females and having intercourse with them. In none of these cases are the husbands comparable in age to the wife. So even though this is a ''possible'' interpretation, it is by no means the ''only reason'' that Muhammad revealed this verse - as evidenced also in the tafsir's provided above. Simply put, Muhammad did not specify an 'iddah for those whom menstruation was not present, so one had to be sent regarding these 3 groups of women. Nowhere in the Qur'an or the ahadith does it discuss teenagers marrying teenagers (ie. to 'explain' this verse) and all the evidence that we have points to [much] older men marrying and having sexual relations with pre-pubescent females.
Given the evidence from the Islamic texts themselves, this interpretation is not the 'most reasonable' as asserted. We have ample [[Muhammad and the Clinical Definition of Pedophilia|evidence]] that  Muhammad (who is considered the [[Uswa Hasana|uswa hasana]] - perfect example) married and had sex with a pre-pubescent Aisha, we have evidence that [[Muhammad's Companions and Pedophilia|Muhammad's companions also did it]] and that [[Contemporary Pedophilic Islamic Marriages|Muslims to this very day]] are marrying pre-pubescent females and having intercourse with them. In none of these cases are the husbands comparable in age to the wife. So even though this is a ''possible'' interpretation, it is by no means the ''only reason'' that Muhammad revealed this verse - as evidenced also in the tafsir's provided above. Simply put, Muhammad did not specify an 'iddah for those whom menstruation was not present, so one had to be sent regarding these 3 groups of women. Nowhere in the Qur'an or the ahadith does it discuss teenagers marrying teenagers (ie. to 'explain' this verse) and all the evidence that we have points to [much] older men marrying and having sexual relations with pre-pubescent females.


=== 65.4 talks only of the 'Iddah and not of sexual activity  ===
=== 65.4 talks only of the 'Iddah and not of sexual activity  ===
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